Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are there posts saying the T in LGBT should be dropped? With what is happening in the US and beyond against the trans community cause for concern that if this is accepted could it be deemed acceptable to start on the LGB community again?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why did my 2001 4.6 liter Mustang GT V8 make "only" 260 HP while today's base Dodge 3.6 liter V6 churns out almost 300 HP? Both benefit from fuel injection and ECUs.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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